2020 4-H Dairy General Knowledge Exam

___C__ 1.             In 2019, the average cow in Maine produced 21,414 lbs of milk. The world record holder for milk production by a cow in 365 days is? A) 68,120  B) 74,280  C) 78,170  D)  82,590

 

___A__ 2.             Which of the following is not a reason dairy production is growing in the Western US? A) Cheaper land prices B) Increasing populations  C) Climate better for raising cows  D) Lower production costs

 

___C__ 3.             Modern dairy cows originated from large wild cattle that roamed Europe, Africa and Asia during the ice age were called?  A) Taurines  B) Bovinaes  C) Aurochs  D) Catel

 

___A__ 4.             It is believed that domestication of cattle and raising cows for milk, began about how many years ago?  A) 10,000  B) 50,000  C) 100,000  D) 1,000,000

 

___A__ 5.             The people of what country has the highest consumption of milk and dairy products? A) Finland  B) US  C) Holland  D) Italy

 

___A__ 6.             The first dairy breed association in the US was formed by Jersey breeders in what state? A) Maine  B) Vermont  C) New York  D) Wisconsin

 

___D__ 7.             Which type of cheese is consumed in the greatest quantity by US consumers? A) Cheddar  B) Swiss  C) American  D) Mozzarella

 

___C__ 8.             In recent years the US per capita consumption of which of the following dairy products has gone down?  A) Butter  B) Yogurt  C) Fluid Milk  D) Cheese

 

___A__ 9.             Dairy products made or bottled in Maine will have a plant code starting with the number?  A) 23  B) 25  C) 33  D) 50

 

___A__ 10.         The most important step in the milking procedure for preventing the spread of contagious mastitis is?  A) Forestripping  B) Predipping  C) Wiping the teat with a towel  D) Postdipping

 

___A__ 11.         Squawking of the milking unit occurs as the teat collapses during milking, causing air to be pulled past the teat and into the milking unit. What is the technical name for this squawking? A) Liner slip  B) Air intrusion  C) Vacuum break  D) Inflation failure

 

___A__ 12.         During milking the rubber liner opens and closes. Milk is expelled from the teat when the liner is?  A) Open  B) Closed  C) Neither  D) Both

 

___D__ 13.         The vacuum pump is the heart of a milking system because the vacuum it creates is responsible for? A) Extracting the milk from the cow B) Massaging the teat  C) Moving the milk through the hoses  D) All the above

 

___B__ 14.         The opening and closing of the liner can be divided into two phases, the milking phase and the rest phase. The length of the rest phase is very important to teat health because  A) It massages blood flow to the teat  B) It massages blood flow away from the teat C) It allows milk to drain into the teat  D) It shuts off the vacuum to the teat

 

___D__ 15.         One robotic milker can milk about how many cows? A) 20-30  B) 30-40  C) 40-50  D) 50-60

 

___C__ 16.         Milk is squeezed from the alveoli by the action of oxytocin on the?  A) Capillaries  B) Lumen  C) Myoepithelium  D) Ducts

 

___A__ 17.          The majority of mastitis cases in a herd are?  A) Subclinical – No outward signs of the disease  B) Clinical – Abnormal milk and other outward signs  C) Acute – Signs the animal is sick  D) Contagious – Can be spread from cow to cow

 

___D__ 18.         It is estimated that each case of mastitis costs the dairy producer $444. The major cause of this loss is?  A)  Veterinary fees and medicines  B) Culling and death of some animals  C) Milk dumped due to treatment  D) Reduced milk production

 

___D__ 19.         When compared with milk from a healthy cow, the milk from cows with mastitis is higher in A) Fat  B) Casein  C) Lactose  D) Salt

 

___B__ 20.         Most cases of mastitis are caused by bacteria. Which of the following mastitis organisms is not a bacteria  A) Streptococcus agalactiae  B) Prototheca  C) Staph aureus  D) Klebsiella

 

___B__ 21.         Somatic cell counts (SCC) in the milk of individual cows is a good way to determine which cows may have mastitis. A cow probably has mastitis when the SCC in her milk (in cells per milliliter) is greater than or equal to A)  100,000  B) 200,000  C) 400,000  D) 750,000

 

___A__ 22.         A drug that is labelled to be given IMM, should be given in the? A) Udder  B) Vein  C) Under the skin  D) Muscle

 

___A__ 23.         Typically environmental mastitis cases are highest in what season of the year?  A) Summer  B) Fall  C) Winter  D) Spring

 

___D__ 24.         Much of the milk we drink is homogenized. What does homogenization do?  A) Make the milk more uniform and consistent  B) Kill any bacteria left in the milk  C) Increase shelf life  D) Prevent the milkfat from rising to the top

 

___A__ 25.         Which component of milk is the most variable?  A) Fat  B) Protein  C) Calcium  D) Lactose

 

___D__ 26.         The amount of milk a cow produces is limited by her ability to manufacture what milk component?  A)  Casein  B) Butterfat  C) Beta Lactoglobulin  D) Lactose

 

___D__ 27.         A low fat to protein ratio in the milk (The fat% is lower than the protein%) is an indication of what metabolic disorder? A) Ketosis  B) Mastitis  C) Displaced Abomasum  D) Acidosis

 

___A__ 28.         The set of federal laws that set the standards for the production of milk are known by the letters A) PMO  B) DHI  C) FARM  D) MQA

 

___A__ 29.         The Standard Plate Count measures the amount of what in milk?  A) Bacteria  B) Somatic cells  C) Water  D) Antibiotics

 

___D__ 30.         Which of the following is not an off-flavor found in milk?  A) Weedy  B) Oxidized  C) Cooked  D) Sweet

 

___B__ 31.         Which dairy breed was developed in New England?  A) Canadienne  B) Randall  C) Lineback  D) Milking Devon

 

___B__ 32.         A genetic trait like milk production that is controlled by a large number of genes is called  A) Qualitative  B) Quantitative  C) Minor  D) Genotypic

 

___D__ 33.         The major tool of an animal breeder is choosing the animals that will be the parents of the next generation. This is called? A) Culling  B) Mating  C) Genetic intensity  D) Selection

 

___C__ 34.         The visible properties of an animal are called the animal’s  A) Traits  B) Genotype  C) Phenotype  D) Proof

 

___A__ 35.         A trait like udder composite that combines several traits into one is called? A) Selection index  B) Genetic summary  C) Multi Trait  D) Breeding value

 

___D__ 36.         A genomic evaluation involves summing up the genetic effects of tiny mutations in an animal’s DNA. These tiny mutations are commonly called A) Drips  B) Flips  C) Grips D) Snips

 

___B__ 37.         This year the genetic base for all dairy proofs was updated to the average genetic value of the cows born in what year?  A) 2010  B) 2015  C) 2018  D) 2020

 

___A__ 38.         The major reason dairy cows are culled from a herd is? A) Reproduction  B) Mastitis  C) Foot injuries  D) Low milk production

 

___C__ 39.         Which of the following great Holstein bulls of all time is responsible for the greatest percentage of genes found in US Holstein cows today?  A) Osborndale Ivanhoe  B) Picston Shottle  C) Round Oak Rag Apple Elevation  D) Pawnee Farms Arlinda Chief

 

___A__ 40.         Recent studies have shown that the average cow is in heat for? A) 7-8 hours  B) 10 -12 hours  C) 12-18 hours D) 20-24 hours

 

___D__ 41.         The newest cow activity monitors can be used to?  A) Improve Heat detection  B) Identify sick cows  C) Measure rumination  D) All the above

 

___A__ 42.         The estrus synchronization protocol that consists of a GnRH injection, followed 7 days later by a prostaglandin injection, followed 2 days later by another GnRH injection with timed breeding to follow 16-20 hours later is called? A) Ovsynch  B) Presynch  C) Targeted Breeding  D) Kitchen Synch

 

___A__ 43.          Which of the following is not a cause of retained placentas in cattle  A) Pneumonia  B) Dystocia  C) Low selenium in ration  D) High body condition

 

___B__ 44.         Metritis is an infection of the? A) Udder  B) Uterus  C) Lungs  D) Rumen

 

___A__ 45.         The voluntary waiting period (VWP) is the rest time we give the cow after calving before breeding her back. Which of the following is not a reason for giving a cow a VWP? A) Allow her to pass peak milk production  B) Allow the uterus to recover  C) Allow her to reach positive energy balance  D) Allow her ovaries to start cycling again

 

___A__ 46.         High producing cows are more efficient nutritionally because  A) A greater percentage of the feed they eat goes for production  B) They produce more milk with less feed  C) It takes less feed to keep them alive D) Their nutrient requirements are less

 

___D__ 47.         When rumen acidosis occurs, which rumen microbes are most affected by the low pH?  A) Bacteria B) Fungi  C) Yeasts  D) Protozoa

 

___C__ 48.         Legumes such as alfalfa are preferred over grasses like timothy for high producing dairy cows because legumes are? A) Higher in fiber  B) Lower in Calcium  C) Higher in protein  D) Easier to dry and make hay

 

___A__ 49.         Corn silage is best harvested at what stage of maturity? A) Dent  B) Dough  C) Milk  D) Flint

 

___B__ 50.          By product feeds are secondary products resulting from the manufacturing of some thing else. Which of the following is not a byproduct feed?  A) Distillers grain  B) Steam flaked corn  C) Soybean meal  D) Wheat middlings

 

___D__ 51.         A feed ingredient added to a ration for other than nutritional reasons is called a(n)?  A) Nutrient  B) Antibiotic  C) Supplement  D) Additive

 

___A__ 52.         Which of the following is not a clinical sign of milk fever? A) High Temperature  B) Not eating  C) Unable to stand  D) Inactive GI tract

 

___D__ 53.         Ketosis results when a cow draws too heavily on body stores of A) Calcium  B) Protein  C) Ketones  D) Fat

 

___B__ 54.         The normal position for the abomasum of the cow is? A) Upper Right side  B) Lower Right side  C) Lower Left side  D) Upper Left side

 

___D__ 55.         After mastitis, the second most costly disease of dairy cattle is?  A) Abortions  B) Milk Fever  C) Johnes Disease D) Lameness

 

___A__ 56.         A slow wasting condition with chronic diarrhea, is a clinical sign of what cattle disease?  A) Johnes  B) Bovine viral diarrhea  C) Displaced abomasum D) Ketosis

 

___D__ 57.         Persistently infected (PI) animals are a common way for what disease to spread throughout a herd?  A) BRSV  B) PI3  C) IBR  D) BVD

 

___C__ 58.          A collection of management practices which protect a herd from the entry and spread of diseases is called?  A) Quarantining  B) Immunity  C) Biosecurity  D) Vaccination

 

___B__ 59.          The personal space surrounding an animal that when entered causes the animal to move away is called?  A) Point of balance  B) Flight zone  C) Zone of repugnance  D) Approach distance

 

___B__ 60.         Which of the following is not one of the 5 freedoms of animal welfare  A) Freedom from hunger  B) Freedom from other animals  C) Freedom from fear  D) Freedom from discomfort

 

___C__ 61.         A normal dairy cow would prefer to lie down how many hours per day?  A) 8  B) 10  C) 12  D) 14

 

___A__ 62.         If a freestall barn has 100 stalls and 120 cows, what is the stocking rate in the barn?  A) 120%  B) 1.2%  C) 83%  D) 100%

 

___A__ 63.         Heat stress in dairy cattle occurs when the environmental temperature (In F degrees) is greater than?  A) 68  D) 72  C) 80  D) 85

 

___C__ 64.         Which of the following is not a recommended practice for keeping cows cool in the summer? A)  Provide shade  B) Fans  C) Sawdust bedding  D) Sprinklers

 

___C__ 65.         A locomotion score of 1 means the cow is moving freely with no problems.  It is recommended that at least what percent of the herd should score a 1?  A) 50  B) 60  C) 70 D) 80

 

___A__ 66.         A calf’s navel should be dipped in disinfectant immediately following birth to prevent what disease  A) Septic arthritis  B) Scours  C) Pneumonia  D) Anemia

 

___D__ 67.         What percent of older cows, lactation 2 or greater, should calve without assistance? A) 50  B) 60  C) 70  D) 80

 

___D__ 68.         The most important feed for rumen development of the young calf is?  A) Water  B) Hay  C) Molasses  D) Calf starter

 

___A__ 69.         The most common scours causing organism in young calves is? A) E coli  B) Cryptosporidium  C) Salmonella  D) Coccidia

 

 A or B 70.  A properly grown Holstein heifer should have her first calf at how many months of age?  A) 22  B) 24  C) 25  D) 27